Sorry das....looks like you went 3 for 3 on the day.
Unless you have any info to add regarding any of these situations, all three sound like they could have been proper calls.
Welcome to Heybucket none-the-less.
das wrote:
2. batter is hit by pitch. blue calls dead ball and asks if she is ok. she says yes and she trots towards first. base coach intercepts her before she touches base, talks to her and walks her back to dugout. sub comes in for hit batter but hit batter never touched first and base coach touched hit batter on her way to 1b. blue says he called dead ball when she got hit and so coach could touch her and she did not have to touch 1B.
Bretman wrote:Wade, your take is exactly how I would have handled this. It wasn't until MTR posted the part about the injury being "complete umpire judgment" that I got to thinking, "What if the umpire judges the injury was not sufficient enough to relieve the batter-runner of her responsibility to touch first base?".
What then? Do you bang the kid out? I guess my question was more aimed to MTR's response.
"A lot may depend on where the batter was hit. If above the shoulders, yeah, get the player off the field if necessary. But if anywhere else, the runner should complete her running tasks."
So, the kid's hit in the hand or knee and obviously in distress. In your judgment, she could still hobble down and touch first base. She does not, but her substitute does.
What happens next?
MTR wrote:Bretman wrote:Wade, your take is exactly how I would have handled this. It wasn't until MTR posted the part about the injury being "complete umpire judgment" that I got to thinking, "What if the umpire judges the injury was not sufficient enough to relieve the batter-runner of her responsibility to touch first base?".
What then? Do you bang the kid out? I guess my question was more aimed to MTR's response.
"A lot may depend on where the batter was hit. If above the shoulders, yeah, get the player off the field if necessary. But if anywhere else, the runner should complete her running tasks."
So, the kid's hit in the hand or knee and obviously in distress. In your judgment, she could still hobble down and touch first base. She does not, but her substitute does.
What happens next?
You simply tell the coach the runner needs to touch the base and then put in the sub. At no point did I indicate that a player not capable of a pain-free trip to 1B be forced to do so. However, unless a doctor or EMT, the umpire must make a decision based upon what is occuring in front of them.
In the OP, the scenario reference, the player got up, said she was okay and started trotting to 1B. If it were a head shot, I could understand why a coach would want to get that player to the dugout.
However, that is not the case here, which is why I questioned the manner in which this was handled. The fact that the umpire reasoned that she did not have to touch 1B because it was a dead ball makes me wonder if the umpire actually knows the rule. If questioned and there is no further explanation was offered to cover his aspect that it was an injury that was the basis for his ruling, this could be a protestable situation. Why place yourself in that situation when all could have been handled with a simple, "Coach, let her touch first"?
Whizzer86 wrote:
I thought if the batter was hit it was a dead ball and the batter is "awarded" the base. "awarded" would indicate "given" so any sub could take their place at any time?