Dead Ball / Delayed Dead Ball rulling

[legend8]

Scenario:
Runner on 1b with no outs. Batter bunts the ball in front of the plate. Batter runs way inside the first base line and the catcher's throw to first is knocked out of the first base glove in a close play.

Homeplate umpire calls runner interference on the throw to first and calls the batter out. The original runner on 1b stops at 2b and stays there after the play.

Homeplate umpire says this is a "delayed dead ball" foul and the runner gets to stay at 2b and does not come back to 1b. Shouldn't the runner be placed back at 1b and this be a "dead ball" foul?

Some ASA rulings on the differences:
http://www.asasoftball.com/umpires/clar ... bruary.asp

[GIMNEPIWO]

ASA 8-6-C ... It's a dead ball ( not delayed dead ball ) runners returned to the last base touched at the time of INT ... If the PU judged INT on the BR then that part of the call was correct ... If R1 already had reached 2nd then that part of the call was correct.

[MTR]

Scenario:
Runner on 1b with no outs. Batter bunts the ball in front of the plate. Batter runs way inside the first base line and the catcher's throw to first is knocked out of the first base glove in a close play.

How and where did that happen?

Homeplate umpire calls runner interference on the throw to first and calls the batter out.

Well, if the ball was in the glove, it couldn't be INT on a throw, which is why I asked the question above.

The original runner on 1b stops at 2b and stays there after the play.

Homeplate umpire says this is a "delayed dead ball" foul and the runner gets to stay at 2b and does not come back to 1b. Shouldn't the runner be placed back at 1b and this be a "dead ball" foul?

Hang on. "foul"? You need to explain that one. However, INT on a player is not a DDB, it is an immediate dead ball and the runner must be returned to the last bast touched at the time of the INT, even if s/he was just a step away.

[Crabby_Bob]

"Foul" as in "a violation", e.g. traveling or offsides, something like that

[MTR]

"Foul" as in "a violation", e.g. traveling or offsides, something like that

Didn't realize we were talking basketball.

[legend8]

I have a couple of clarifications from my original post.

"Foul" as in "a violation", e.g. traveling or offsides, something like that

sorry... "foul' was an improper term. I guess that I have been watching too many basketball games for my daughter too.

Well, if the ball was in the glove, it couldn't be INT on a throw, which is why I asked the question above.

I should have been more specific. The runner and the ball reached the first basemen at the same time. The ball was not actually in the glove, but there was contact between the runner and the fielder as the ball arrived.

Hang on. "foul"? You need to explain that one. However, INT on a player is not a DDB, it is an immediate dead ball and the runner must be returned to the last bast touched at the time of the INT, even if s/he was just a step away.

I agree, the play should not have been a delayed dead ball, but that is what was declared by the homeplate umpire. The runner at firstbase may have touched secondbase prior to the collision at firstbase, which what I am hearing people say, would keep the runner at secondbase after the call.

[viperump]

The base is in fair territory. It is a generally accepted practice that if this possible interference happens on that last step into 1b, then the runner had to be in fair territory to touch 1b so it is a "collision" - no interference, no obstruction.

[SoCalASABlue]

The base is in fair territory. It is a generally accepted practice that if this possible interference happens on that last step into 1b, then the runner had to be in fair territory to touch 1b so it is a "collision" - no interference, no obstruction.

Agree with you if the throw took F3 into foul territory - otherwise the only way the batter could have collided with F3 receiving the throw inside the diamond is that the batter was running inside the diamond and NOT in the running lane as "required"...

HTBT I guess...

[GIMNEPIWO]

Scenario:
Runner on 1b with no outs. Batter bunts the ball in front of the plate. Batter runs way inside the first base line and the catcher's throw to first is knocked out of the first base glove in a close play.

Homeplate umpire calls runner interference on the throw to first and calls the batter out. The original runner on 1b stops at 2b and stays there after the play.

Homeplate umpire says this is a "delayed dead ball" foul and the runner gets to stay at 2b and does not come back to 1b. Shouldn't the runner be placed back at 1b and this be a "dead ball" foul?

Some ASA rulings on the differences:
http://www.asasoftball.com/umpires/clar ... bruary.asp

The BR being "way inside the first basline" in by itself is irrelevent ...

[legend8]

The BR being "way inside the first basline" in by itself is irrelevent ...

The baserunner was in about 4 feet inside the baseline in fair terrority. She was not running in the running lane.

When she bunted she was up front in the box and did not run a direct line to the base.