B1 scorekeeping on R2 interference?

[Coachyof5]

R1 on 2B, 1 out. B1 hits to SS and R2 is called for interference. How is the AB scored?

[Coachyof5]

My bad, yes R1 called. Thanks that was my assumption, wanted to check.
S

[teammom]

Does it matter if the at bat would have been a hit if R1 did not get hit by the ball? I saw a play today and it would have been a hit up the middle, just to the left of 2nd base, but R1 ran into the ball. Seems unfair that the batter would be penalized in their batting average for someone else's mistake. Almost seems like it should not count as an at bat.

[SnocatzDad]

Does it matter if the at bat would have been a hit if R1 did not get hit by the ball? I saw a play today and it would have been a hit up the middle, just to the left of 2nd base, but R1 ran into the ball. Seems unfair that the batter would be penalized in their batting average for someone else's mistake. Almost seems like it should not count as an at bat.

That's the way stats are kept, it's almost always to the disadvantage to the hitter to have runners on base statistically. I agree it can seem unfair to the batter at times, but it's consistant

[coxjj]

According the guidelines I've always used (ATEC: Beyond the Basics of Scoring Fastpitch Softball), which has NFCA logos all over it:

Offense: Hits
Credit a hit:
2e: if a runner interferes with a batted ball, but the batter would have been safe without the interference, credit a hit

Not sure which organizations this would apply to.

[nohesitation]

R1 on 2B, 1 out. B1 hits to SS and R2 is called for interference. How is the AB scored?

This is a minor point, however, If R1 is on 2B with 1 out, the next batter would be “B3” that hit it to SS. You would be correct to call this a FC. You could call it a “interference out” to be more accurate, as long as it's scored as an “At Bat” with no credit to OnBase% or Hitting%. See ASA Rule 11-3D. As always, determining if the play is a “hit” is subjective. See ASA Rule 11-2B-3b

[nohesitation]

Does it matter if the at bat would have been a hit if R1 did not get hit by the ball? I saw a play today and it would have been a hit up the middle, just to the left of 2nd base, but R1 ran into the ball. Seems unfair that the batter would be penalized in their batting average for someone else's mistake. Almost seems like it should not count as an at bat.

That's the way stats are kept, it's almost always to the disadvantage to the hitter to have runners on base statistically. I agree it can seem unfair to the batter at times, but it's consistant

I’m going to disagree about being statistically disadvantaged with runners on. What about sac- flies, sac-bunts and rbi’s?